exam6again
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Q25 vs. Q11, if the payment pattern is for the expected future cash flows, then we are directly use the ratio? i am a bit confused to when we can directly multiply the ratio and when to calculate like the way in Q25
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is LR = losses/EP? why we use ELR*Direct Unearned Premium net of cancellations to get the losses? why Direct Unearned Premium?
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what is this calculating?
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why we use the weighted average from undiversified CTE?
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The company's operating target corresponds to a 200% Minimum Capital Test (MCT) ratio, why we want 2MinCapReq instead of 2CapAv/MinCapReq?
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why 1.5 * Cap Req?
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why 2 * (CapAV/(1.5 * CapReq))? should it be 2 * [CapAV/(CapReq/1.5)] which is 2 * (CapAV/CapReq1.5)? which is 3(CapAV/CapReq)
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are they not the same? CapAv / CapReq * 1.5 vs.1.5 * CapAv/ CapReq maybe i should write (CapAv / CapReq) * 1.5like this, but then 2 * (CapAv / CapReq) * 1.5) is still 3 * (CapAv / CapReq), i still got divide by 3 instead
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where does it show that "removing the premiums received but not the directly attributable acquisition expenses"
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"2250 if following the CAS method", it isn't 2500 for CAS method? i get more confused now. In short, can I use 2500-250 which is 2250 for the LRC using PAA at initial recognition like above Alice's example?
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is it because we are calculating the CSM here, so we can't use PAA at initial recognition? @graham
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Please read what you comment at the bottom of the IFRS17 sample question, you got LRC is 2500 in the equation but 2250 in the comment, so 2250 or 2500?
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MCT Ratio = CapAv/minCapReq = CapAv/(CapReq/1.5) = CapAv/CapReq1.5, so 200% Minimum Capital Test (MCT) ratio, would it be CapAv/CapReq1.52 which is CapAv/CapReq3, why are we not dividing by 3 but dividing by 1.5 then multiply it by 2?
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due to mid-term cancellations, should the subtraction DUP*adjustment for cancellation instead?