CanAct06
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This seems random, why is the threshold 20%? Why would you 'add' this piece above 20% growth as a piece of capital?
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Why are we taking the avg in step 2b from 2a? -> But why are we shifting the CF 'back' by half a year? I guess the discounting makes sense bc you are moving from half yr accidents to time 0, but the CF avg is weird.
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I don't understand this at all: 1) How can you have LRC < 0? Can you disect the formula for LRC vs. FCF? How they differ. 2) Like the gentleman asked, how can a Cash Inf for FCF cause a further loss? Still not making sense, so confusing I am n…
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One of the excel file downloads... The name of file is in subject