Spring 2018 (Makeup) Q11 d)
When normalizing the current relativity, it looks like the sample solution takes a weighted average of the current relativities using the premium as weights to get the total current relativity and normalized. I don't understand why this is valid because my understanding is that premium is a function of the current relativities and thus you should use exposures as weights rather than premium. For example, exposure = premium / current relativity, then use the resulting exposures to get a weighted average of the current relativities to use to normalize the relativities. Can you explain why the sample solution does it like this?
Also could you explain the solution? It appears that the indicated change compares (current premium) * (indicated change) to (new premium). So essentially, is the change in base rate making up for the premium shortfall? Does this mean territory relativities should be adjusted? (BR adjustment should be backed out)
Comments
Using Premium as Weights vs. Using Exposure:
If the goal is to truly understand the risk (or loss potential) differences among territories or classes without the influence of price, then using exposures as weights is more appropriate. If, however, the intention is to understand how much each class or territory contributes to the total premium, then premiums could be used as weights.
Is the change in base rate making up for the premium shortfall?
Should territory relativities be adjusted?
Base Rate (BR) adjustment backed out?
Thank you for your detailed explanation. In this question do you think it is valid to be using premium as weights? In other similar questions, typically relativities are exposure weighted. Do you think it be considered incorrect on my exam if I calculated the exposures using exposure = premium / current relativity and used these to weight the relativities?
No, don't do that. If they didn't give you the exposures then I wouldn't try to estimate them. That's just making the problem unnecessarily complicated.